Replacing the aw70 in my 91 240 wagon with an aw70L out of a 92 240. From what I have read, you need to retain the alignment of the driveshaft with the output and pinion flange. That the driveshaft is integrally balanced with both flanges.
Are they compatible? Also the flange of the aw70 has some play in the bushing. Do I need to check the flange for wear? It does have over 250,000 mile on it. Are there signs of wear and tolerances I should check?
If I need to instead use the aw70L flange, do I need to have the drive shaft rebalanced and also include the pinion flange as well?

"From what I have read, you need to retain the alignment of the driveshaft with the output and pinion flange. That the driveshaft is integrally balanced with both flanges."

Not true. If it were, you couldn't take a driveshaft to a specialty shop for balancing. Or swap in a previously balanced shaft from the junkyard.


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Bruce Young, '93 940-NA (current), 240s (one V8), 140s, 122s, since '63.

I hope your right. it does make sense. But from reading FAQ, I got the impression from their remarks that you need to mark the flanges to retain the same drive shaft alignment once reinstalled,

"But from reading FAQ,..."

Yes, I've read that too. But FAQ doesn't mean factual. I don't believe there is any vetting process for FAQ submissions, so some myths are bound to creep in.


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Bruce Young, '93 940-NA (current), 240s (one V8), 140s, 122s, since '63.

I have to agree. I have read conflicting info there as well. But for what it is,it's a great resource.